In 2 Thessalonians 2:2, the translations that have Paul here referring to the "Day of the Lord" instead of the Day of Christ" present a concern that I have not seen scholars deal with as it should be.  As can be seen in an original KJV Strong's Concordance, the Greek word from which "Christ" is here translated is plainly Christos (G5547).  However, newer concordances not keyed to the KJV show the Greek word here as kurios (G2962), from which the word "Lord" is translated.  This discrepancy is not the result of a mistake in the KJV Strong's Concordance, but stems from what is found in the Textus Receptus manuscript, from which the KJV was translated.  Simply put, what this means is that there is a difference here in what is found in the Textus Receptus versus other manuscripts.  This is a rarity, but something that is sometimes pointed out in Bible footnotes and commentaries.  Curiously, I have never seen this discrepancy addressed as I address it (often not at all), nor another example where the word Christos  in one manuscript is seen to be kurios  in another.  So, what do we do here, and does it even matter?  I submit that it matters greatly and that, thankfully, we are not without recourse in discovering the truth of the matter.  Consider:​​

1. It is easy to get the impression that most scholars want what Paul says in our verse of concern to be of the "Day of the Lord."  This perception has caused me to become increasingly suspect of some past manuscript corruption and of there being a bias towards one manuscript over another because of a personal word preference.  I cannot apologize for being suspect.  The Bible is replete with warnings for us to be wary.  It should go without saying that we must seek for the true words of God, not for what our preferences might be.

2. Paul indeed spoke to the Thessalonians concerning the Day "of the Lord" (kurios) in his first letter to them (1 Thess. 5:2) and there informed them that this time of God's judgment will come "as a thief in the night."  Moreover, he said to them in the same verse, "For yourselves know perfectly" concerning this.  Question:  If Paul was again talking to them about the exact same thing in 2 Thessalonians 2:2, why would he then undermine the "thief in the night" element of that coming time of judgment by divulging to them (and the world!) that "THAT DAY SHALL NOT COME except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition" ( 2 Thess. 2:3)?

3. As I mentioned in PROPOSITION G, REFERENCE #4 (from which this appendix originates), according to Paul's words, we who are a part of the Church will not see the "the son of perdition" or Antichrist revealed.  While he may be alive even now, this is different than being revealed.  Before any of this occurs, the Church will be gathered to Christ during the rapture.  Again, it was upon the basis of this that Paul beseeched his readers to not be troubled ( 2 Thess. 2:1).  The truth of this is also reinforced in 1 Thessalonians 4:16-18, just before he unequivocally speaks to them concerning the Day of the Lord (1 Thess. 5:1-2).  The Church will be escaping this time of God's judgment, unlike the rest of the world (1 Thess. 5:3).

4. By way of a sample narrative that will fit what Paul wrote of in 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12 (with what we find elsewhere in Scripture), on the day of the "gathering together" of the Church, the bottom will drop out of things in this world.  With the absence of the influence of Christ's Holy Spirit through the Church (vs. 7), there will be a "falling away" (apostasy) from every semblance of Biblical truth by those (even religious people) who did not really have any "love of the truth" in the first place, but rather, "had pleasure in unrighteousness" (vss. 10-12).  Relating to this time, Paul said, "THEN shall that Wicked be revealed" (vs. 8).  The "Wicked" is that "man of sin" and "son of perdition" that he had spoken of in verse three, also known as the Antichrist.  The Lord will destroy him "with the brightness of His coming" (vs. 8) or Second Advent, which is the same "Day of Christ" that he had spoken of in verse two.

5. To those of the common pre-trib persuasion who may yet wonder about the truth of this matter, realize that if the verse of our concern is indeed speaking of the Day of the Lord, the very teachings of the common view are in conflict with this.  How in?  It is not uncommon to hear it stated that the Day of the Lord will commence with the rapture, a statement with which I agree and also feel is irrefutable.  But, if Paul is indeed speaking here of the Day of the Lord, he is clear that "THAT DAY shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed" ( 2 Thess. 2:3).  This would mean that the man of sin will be revealed before the rapture as well, to the tenor of the saying, "It's as broad as it is long."  Though this does not seem to have been realized by those holding to the common pre-trib view, it is in serious conflict with the foundational pre-trib position concerning imminency.  Think about it.

     With all of these thoughts in mind, I would encourage the studying of REFERENCE #4 of PROPOSITION G once again.  By what I have shown and how this is seen to harmonize with everything else I show throughout this site, I submit that the original word of our focus (what Paul actually  wrote) was Christos  indeed and not kurios.  The Day of Christ (Christos) and the Day of the Lord (kurios) are not synonymous phrases and should not be confused, especially in the passage of our concern.  The Day of the Lord (or the time of God's coming judgment) will begin on the same day that the Church is gathered in the rapture.  The Day of Christ (Jesus' Second Advent) will not come until over seven years afterward, well after "that man of sin" is revealed—all in perfect accord with Paul's words.​​​​​​​​​​​​​​​

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